In article , Torsten Brinch
writes
No, it is the assumed default among reasonable men. It is the
presence, not the absence of a subsidy that must have a special
explanation attached to it. It does not make sense to ask, why some
enterprise should -not- have a subsidy.

How about conspiracy theory?

In a country without a command economy is it easier for government to
control agricultural production with or without paying subsidy?



regards


--
Tim Lamb