In article ,
"Jim Webster" wrote:

"Tim Tyler" wrote in message ...
In uk.rec.gardening BAC wrote:
: "Tim Tyler" wrote in message ...

: A can only cause B to do something directly if he eliminates B's
: freedom of action - e.g. by drugging or hypnotizing him - otherwise
: B's actions are the result of B's choices.

: So who was responsible for the killing of Charles 1, Cromwell and the
: co-signatories of the death warrant, or the executioner who did the
: deed (history seems to blame Cromwell)?

I don't know. Did the executioner act freely?

Generally speaking I would blame whoever *commits* the act of violence -
rather than anyone who told them to do it - or paid them to do it.

you attitude is at odds with English law

Not just English law, virtually every legal system will prosecute anyone
who incites or pays others to commit acts of murder as if they too had
committed the act - even international law. Isn't that what the
Nuremburg Trials established - that the leaders ordering the killings
were as guilty as those who committed the acts?