The message
from "Duncan Heenan" contains these words:

My understanding is that once a road had been adopted by a Local Authority
or The Highways Authority, everyone has a right of access to and over it.

Yes.

Criminal intent relates to the intention to commit a crime, not the
location
of the person having that intent.

Yes.

Am I wrong? If so, why? And why should I believe you?

Yes, but you are wrong in assuming that you have any right to use the
public highway in the commission of a criminal act. The public highway
may lawfully be used for passing and repassing, but may not be so used
unlawfully.

You don't have to believe me, but in my part-time life as a very
part-time gamekeeper I have to know these things. However, you can look
them up using the excellent references provided in the thread.

--
Rusty
Open the creaking gate to make a horrid.squeak, then lower the foobar.
http://www.users.zetnet.co.uk/hi-fi/