In article ,
"michael adams" writes:
|
| If the long A formed the last syllable of a rhyming couplet
| in which the last word of the other line was "cart" or "dart",
| then it would be reasonable to suppose it too was pronounced
| "ah".
|
| If on the other hand the long A formed the last syllable of a rhyming
| couplet in which the last word of the other line was "bite" or "sight",
| then it would be reasonable to suppose it too was pronounced
| "aye".
|
| If on the other hand the long A formed the last syllable of a rhyming
| couplet in which the last word of the other line was "gate" or "bait",
| then it would be reasonable to suppose it tooo was pronounced
| "ay".
|
| Would it not?

It would, if your assumptions were true, but they aren't.

Firstly, Latin did not go in for lengthening vowels in that way,
secondly, classical Latin verse was rhythm-based and not rhyme-based
and, thirdly, that would help only if we know how the 'complex'
vowels were pronounced.

| though
| there are some educated guesses (and a lot of dogmatic claims).
|
| Presumably all such pronounciations can be deduced, by cross
| referencing the endings of rhyming couplets.

I am amused by your presumption :-)

| Given that both rhyme and metre were especialy important
| in oral cultures, as aids to memorisation.

Even if that were true, which it isn't, classical Latin did not come
from an oral culture.


Regards,
Nick Maclaren.