On Mon, 04 Jul 2005 13:25:55 GMT, Roy wrote:
Yes and no.......The flow from 2 /2" pipes does not equate to flow
from 1, 1" pipe.

Correct.

If you compute the area inside the pipe, usually 1in pipe is about 4x
the area of a 1/2in pipe.

Restrictions and friction and length of runs to each individual nozzle

Exactly. So even if you have 4x 1/2in pipes, you still probably will
not flow as much as one, 1in pipe.

sdb

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